There is a legal argument thatbecause both countries agreed to the union both must agree to dissolve it.
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edjogs Collared doves are shit.,
Wed 25 Jan 2012, 19:57,
archived)
True...But as parliament in the rest of the UK is sovereign it's up-to parliament not the people as such. (In Scotland the people are sovereign not the state so only the people can decide.)
There's your useless fact of the day :-)
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Wed 25 Jan 2012, 20:20,
archived)
There's your useless fact of the day :-)
I think the argument is that neither can split without mutual consent.If this is not the case watch out for Cornwall.
( edjogs Collared doves are shit.,
Wed 25 Jan 2012, 20:44,
archived)
Not necessarilyThere's precedents that do allow for one nation to declare independence from another without the need for agreement of both (Kosovo for one) and the UN rights of self-determination would (in theory) allow Scotland to declare independence if the people wanted it.
There's also some arguments that since Westminster changed the treaty of the union without the consent of the (original) Scottish Parliament then the treaty has been voided.
But I'm not a lawyer and will be talking bobbins.
(,
Wed 25 Jan 2012, 20:58,
archived)
There's also some arguments that since Westminster changed the treaty of the union without the consent of the (original) Scottish Parliament then the treaty has been voided.
But I'm not a lawyer and will be talking bobbins.