if she's made it absolutely clear that nothing else is on the cards now or at any point in the future, though.
(, Wed 27 Aug 2008, 12:52, archived)
Why should she have to make that clear? Why should he be assuming a right to her unless she explicitly tells him otherwise?
(, Wed 27 Aug 2008, 12:59, archived)
for want of a better word.
she's the one in possession of all the facts. He only knows that he's interested in her romantically. She knows that, plus the fact that's she's not. So she's the one guilty of deception if she accepts his offer under false pretences.
We're not saying this applies to ALL circumstances where one person meets another in a social situation. But it certainly applies to THIS situation.
(, Wed 27 Aug 2008, 13:10, archived)