Can you actually tell the difference in a blind tasting?

( Maffers I flow kinda strange like Spina Bifida footprints, Thu 4 Oct 2012, 19:32, 2 replies)

As this is a perfectly rational and reasonable question, I predict it will get completely ignored.

( The Mock TurtIe ™ --- Thinks you are a cunt, on, Thu 4 Oct 2012, 21:19, closed)

I believe ...
...I can fly I can tell the difference.

I even believe that I can tell whether a cuppa has been made in a mug by the above preferred method or in a teapot using what I consider to be the actual correct way to make tea.

There are entirely rational reasons why they need not taste the same - tea is complex stuff after all. However I haven't ever actually tried a blind tasting so who knows?
( Ugi , it's a game of give and cake, Fri 5 Oct 2012, 9:56, closed)

when I mentioned this before in a previous QOTW
someone replied that a tea "expert" said that milk in the cup first was the correct way of doing it...

I guess it's down to personal preference, but milk first just seems so wrong
( theoriginalsteve <this space intentionally left blank>, Fri 5 Oct 2012, 16:47, closed)

Milky
Milk first was either to stop fine bone china cracking from the heat, or to stop the unpasteurised cow juice curdling. Maybe.

Tea is the solution to everything.
(SwampyBob, Sat 6 Oct 2012, 0:12, closed)

I think I can - it's usually a lot milkier and never seems hot enough for a fresh cuppa
( theoriginalsteve <this space intentionally left blank>, Thu 4 Oct 2012, 22:11, closed)