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(, Sun 1 Apr 2001, 1:00)
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to end a sentence up with.
(, Mon 15 Nov 2010, 12:12, 2 replies, latest was 15 years ago)
but I thought that was just an old rule from Latin grammar that had dwindled into disuse in most modern European languages?
(, Mon 15 Nov 2010, 12:15, Reply)
I just have an inkling that it's unnecessary.
(, Mon 15 Nov 2010, 12:20, Reply)
seeing as in Latin generally prepositions are always before the noun they govern, with the exception of a few, such as causa
EDIT: I'm thinking about this backwards. In Latin the two are always inextricable, with but in the case of a few the preposition going ahead. It makes a little more sense.
(, Mon 15 Nov 2010, 12:19, Reply)
sometimes it sounds ridiculous to mangle a sentence to avoid a prep. The famous example being the "up with which I will not put" Churchill quote.
(, Mon 15 Nov 2010, 12:38, Reply)
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